My sensitive estradiol test finally came back and I'm at 15 pg/mL. I have some symptoms that could be explained by low E2, so it looks like I overcorrected a bit with my use of Aromasin. I'll adjust dosage going forward, live and learn, no big deal. I'll be suboptimal for a couple of weeks.
I've read that some keep Dbol on hand to recover from crashed estrogen. Two questions come to mind now that I'm here for the first time, and I can't quite make sense of that idea. Would really appreciate insight from those who recommend or understand the thinking behind this practice.
1. Why would Dianabol be better at boosting estradiol levels than just injecting more testosterone? Is this because it has a significantly higher conversion rate, so you get more estradiol production per unit of other anabolic/androgenic effects? I don't know enough about this process to usefully reason about it, though I will definitely do some reading on it.
2. If I've so thoroughly depleted my aromatase enzymes that I can't aromatize enough test, what's left to convert dianabol into estradiol? Can a given residual concentration of aromatase enzymes produce more estradiol with dianabol present than with just test present?
The options I understand are A) reduce/discontinue aromasin and wait a week or two for the existing drug to clear out and for my body to then produce and use new enzymes on whatever aromatizable compounds are present, whether that's test or Dbol or MENT or whatever, or B) introduce exogenous estradiol.
I've read that some keep Dbol on hand to recover from crashed estrogen. Two questions come to mind now that I'm here for the first time, and I can't quite make sense of that idea. Would really appreciate insight from those who recommend or understand the thinking behind this practice.
1. Why would Dianabol be better at boosting estradiol levels than just injecting more testosterone? Is this because it has a significantly higher conversion rate, so you get more estradiol production per unit of other anabolic/androgenic effects? I don't know enough about this process to usefully reason about it, though I will definitely do some reading on it.
2. If I've so thoroughly depleted my aromatase enzymes that I can't aromatize enough test, what's left to convert dianabol into estradiol? Can a given residual concentration of aromatase enzymes produce more estradiol with dianabol present than with just test present?
The options I understand are A) reduce/discontinue aromasin and wait a week or two for the existing drug to clear out and for my body to then produce and use new enzymes on whatever aromatizable compounds are present, whether that's test or Dbol or MENT or whatever, or B) introduce exogenous estradiol.
